Basic Division Officer Course (BDOC) Week 1 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• CAT III reporting interval is every how many days?
• Which of the following is included in the Administrative CoC?
• Concurrent records are used for members fulfilling which condition?
• Which of the following is a component of a formal report?
• During the color program, what restriction is placed on movement across the brow?
• Which term describes requirements to be completed prior to final qualification?
• Which of the following is a numbered fleet?
• Which of the following is a form of shipboard communication equipment?
• Which statement best describes the 'individual funds' in the TSP?
• OPREP-3 is used for critical situations and defines two reporting windows. What are the time frames for Immediate and Flash?
• Which inspection addresses the maintenance of safe and healthy conditions in the workplace?
• What is the typical role of the Ombudsman?
• ROC/POE serve as inputs for which documents?
• Which term indicates the projected number of leave days that will be lost if not taken in the current fiscal year?
• Which Combatant Command includes Alaska in its AOR?
• CSMP corresponds to which area?
• ATG stands for which term in naval training?
• LOGREQ messages are sent when relative to pull-in?
• How are ROC/POE evaluated for a ship?
• Which term represents the projected leave balance at the member's Expiration Term of Service?
• Which fleet covers Western half of the Pacific Ocean and most of the Indian Ocean?
• Which article governs basic procedures for non-judicial punishment?
• What is the recommended method to maintain a Service Record?
• Which action is included in the CMS Manager responsibilities?
• Which CASREPS message type includes changes to information submitted on initial or previous updates?
• Which fleet covers the Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, and part of the Indian Ocean?
• Which statement best describes a DIVO responsibility?
• Which term is used to describe a situation that could cause damage to equipment or personnel?
• EXORD refers to the execution of what event?
• In Roth TSP, when are investments taxed?
• Identify methods for advancement other than the normal requirements.
• Which of the following is part of the Operational CoC?
• Which of the following is a DRRS-N pillar?
• What is the internal periodicity of a Material Obligation Validation (MOV)?
• TADTAR is best described as:
• In the deadly force triangle, which term defines the ability or means to inflict death or serious bodily harm?
• Which of the following is NOT a DRRS-N pillar?
• Which inspection is used to fulfill reporting requirements during brief service when a detailed assessment cannot be provided?
• Which statement describes LPO responsibilities?
• Which term is NOT listed as a stage in a ship's lifecycle?
• Which funding type represents a supplemental allocation besides OPTAR and Grants?
• Who is authorized to approach and determine how guest senior officers should be brought aboard?
• Which of the following is not a PQS level?
• What does AE stand for?
• Which ORM level is described as time is not a limiting factor and the RIGHT answer is required for mission success?
• Who is the Ombudsman?
• BF BAL is used to denote which leave balance?
• Projected Operational Environment (POE) is described as?
• Which document outlines assigned watches and stations?
• Which acronym refers to material condition of the ship, equipment casualties?
• What does 'Close up' indicate in relation to prep pennant and colors?
• Which statement best defines OPTAR?
• Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) implies what?
• What instruction is given about messages on the 1MC during the colors ceremony?
• Which level represents the highest degree of force in the continuum?
• What is the primary purpose of TORIS/TFOM?
• What does Fit express in manpower terms?
• On-the-Job Training (OJT) is described as what?
• For OPREP-3, the voice report must be submitted within how many minutes?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four Supporting Processes to SSOP?
• Who is the family care plan required for?
• Which statement describes the OPREP 3 Unit SITREP requirement?
• Which term is associated with the final watch station oversight?
• Which flag event indicates the absence of the Commanding Officer?
• How often should service records be checked according to the material?
• Which of the following describes Entitlements on a LES?
• Which description best defines Physical Security in the context of COMSEC?
• MOV stands for Material Obligation Validation.
• Which statement best describes how the 3M program is managed?
• Secret classification corresponds to what level of damage?
• Which acronym corresponds to On board to meet operational needs?
• What does the existence of two fund types imply about asset allocation options?
• Which statement best defines opportunity as used in threat assessment?
• In ORM, probability refers to which concept?
• Access describes which of the following?
• What distance is used for passing honors rendered according to seniority?
• What is the general requirement for enlisted advancement?
• CAT IV reporting interval is every how many hours?
• Which description best defines intent?
• Which term refers to standing watch where a person typically must be observed or supervised at the final watch station?
• Which term indicates leave days that were not used and cannot be carried over from the previous fiscal year?
• Which naval message type is used to request logistics support?
• Which item is NOT listed as a DoD threat?
• Which is NOT a function of the Screen Board?
• How often is INSURV conducted?
• Lifecycle fund is described as?
• Which term refers to routine tasks or conditions that an individual must perform?
• When is the ORM process typically applied?
• Which item is not listed as a form of shipboard communication equipment?
• Which category is described as leave that is not deducted from the total leave balance when used?
• In the deadly force triangle, which element corresponds to the ability to inflict death or serious bodily harm?
• Rate-entry Training (Strikers) require which of the following to become a rated Sailor?
• Indigo messages are used for which purpose?
• Which four documents are used for Manning?
• Which of the following is NOT an occasion for submitting an EVAL/FITREP?
• Which statement is true about a restricted report?
• Which threat describes individuals within an organization who may cause harm?
• Which inspection is done before sailors transfer to a new billet?
• MOVEREP messages are sent at which times?
• Which Command's Area of Responsibility is altitude greater than 62 miles?
• Which statement correctly describes the Administrative Board?
• What are the three sections of PQS and their levels?
• Which ORM level provides ample time to apply the process for the BEST answer?
• The Enlisted Manning Inquiry Report notifies which audiences when a unit has an enlisted manning deficiency?
• Which statement about Roth contributions is correct according to the material?
• Which acronym is associated with On board to meet operational needs?
• CASREP Initial is defined as being submitted no later than 24 hours after casualty.
• Which of the following is the first step in the ORM five-step process?
• A Letter of Extension extends the period of observation up to how many days?
• The fleet that oversees responsibility for the Adriatic, Baltic, Barents, Black, Caspian, Mediterranean, and North Seas is the:
• Which statement reflects the purpose of OPSEC?
• Which naval message type is used to report ship movement and status?
• Which court-martial can impose death as a possible punishment?
• Which statement is true about an unrestricted report?
• OPREP-5 is sent with what frequency?
• What is Weekend liberty?
• Mid-cycle assessment for the 3M program occurs after how many months from the last assessment?
• If PQS is used for qualification, which level focuses on Fundamentals?
• What term indicates full dress ship?
• Which CAT category has the longest interval?
• Which statement best describes NOB?
• Which statement about the Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL) is correct?
• What does Fill express in manpower terms?
• How often is Zone Inspection performed?
• Which term describes an event (or series of events) that will cause damage to equipment or personnel?
• Which of the following statements about MOV is true?
• CMP corresponds to which area?
• Which statement about Lifecycle funds is true?
• Which of the following expresses a punishment possibility of a General Court-Martial?
• What is the basis for how the manpower system determines the number and skill level of Navy personnel embarked?
• What does the third substitute indicate?
• What is the purpose of Quarters?
• In Rate-entry Training, who chooses the rate to strike?
• Which program is designed to identify family members with long-term health care or special education needs?
• Which Core Principle relates to knowledge level?
• OPTAR funds are best described as:
• How many investment fund options does the TSP offer?
• Confidential classification corresponds to which level of damage?
• What does the Allowance Parts List (APL) describe?
• Which of the following is a funding type listed alongside OPTAR and Grants?
• In the Navy's use of force continuum, which is the lowest level of force?
• In the passing honors sequence, what is the signal for a hand salute by junior and senior?
• Which inspection is conducted every five years?
• The CMS Manager normally reports to whom for routine administrative duties requiring functional direction and administration?
• For OPREP-3, the record message report should be submitted within what time?
• What does the Official Military Personnel File reflect?
• End of fiscal year funds refer to:
• FLTMPS relates to which area?
• Which term defines tasks or conditions that are not typically performed on a normal watch but may occur?
• In NJP proceedings, which role has a character statement of the accused?
• DIVO Notebook components consist of which three sections?
• Which CASREPS message type is used to report the repair of previously CASREP'd equipment?
• In maintenance scheduling, the program commonly used is SKED.
• What ROC/POE together describe?
• Which statement best describes a summary court-martial?
• Which of the following is a function of the Screen Board?
• Executive Officer Inquiry (XOI) is a component of which process?
• Need-to-know is defined as what?
• Which term describes unduly familiar personal relationships in military policy?
• What does Official Military Personnel File reflect?
• Which Combatant Command is based at MacDill Air Force Base, Florida?
• What is the focus of the 200 level PQS?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Administrative CoC?
• Which fleet covers the Caribbean, and surrounding waters of Central and South America?
• Which term describes recognition of trouble symptoms or situations that will require special attention?
• In ORM, severity refers to which of the following?
• Which term refers to days of leave that have been sold back?
• Top Secret classification is associated with which level of damage?
• Which Combatant Command covers the Indo-Asia-Pacific Region?
• External MOV periodicity is quarterly.
• CASREP is sent when equipment cannot be fixed within how many hours?
• Which statement about CMS is true?
• CMS stands for what, and what is its role?
• Which damage level is associated with Secret classification?
• Which option represents a reenlistment incentive with a monetary component?
• Which Core Principle emphasizes asking questions to verify procedures?
• Which naval message type is used to report casualty status?
• Which statement correctly matches the MOV terms Routine and Priority with their codes and times?
• What is the primary purpose of ROC in manpower planning?
• CSMP is associated with which area?
• Which categories comprise liberty?
• Team Training is accomplished through drills or briefs in which locations?
• FEDLOG is described as what kind of tool?
• Which statement describes how ROC/POE relate to SMD?
• In the deadly force triangle, what does capability mean?
• Which term refers to a formal assessment consisting of written and/or oral demonstration of knowledge?
• What are the five steps of the P5 cycle?
• Which of the following describes the composition of a Special Court-Martial?
• The investment options span from which to which?
• The Command Fitness Leader is responsible for what at their command?
• What is OPSEC?
• Which category describes leave that is not deducted from the total leave balance when used?
• Which Combatant Command's AOR includes all of Africa except Egypt?
• PSR stands for which of the following?
• Which CAT category has the shortest interval?
• In NJP procedures, which step follows Investigation?
• What is the purpose of using ship's logs?
• In the colors ceremony, at 0800, which occurs?
• What are the two types of TSP contributions available?
• Which division handles Distribution in the ship's supply organization?
• Which fleet is responsible for the Western half of the Atlantic Ocean?
• Which term describes leave that is charged against the total leave balance when used?
• Augment is defined as:
• The 10th Fleet is responsible for the Navy's cyber warfare programs and is subordinate to which commands (for space issues)?
• PQS is defined as what?
• What is the Family Care Plan?
• Which CAT category has the second-longest interval?
• Which item is NOT included as a type within a statuary board?
• Which statement is NOT supported by the material?
• The POE description includes which environmental element?
• BF BAL is defined as which type of leave balance?
• Which term covers tasks or conditions that are not completed during a typical watch?
• Which term corresponds to 'Personnel onboard with NEC, qualifications'?
• Which Combatant Command is responsible for Central and South America, and the Caribbean?
• Which fleet is associated with the Mediterranean region?
• The term Promulgate is associated with which cycle?
• Identify the circumstances that render enlisted personnel ineligible for advancement.
• PSR stands for which of the following?
• What is the focus of the 100 level PQS?
• OPREP-3 is a naval message type used for operational reports of significant incidents. Which option below is OPREP-3?
• What does FAP stand for?
• Which CASREPS message type is submitted upon entering an availability period or equipment is permanently taken out of use?
• In MOV, the Priority code is which letter and its processing time?
• Certification Exercises are conducted in the Basic Phase and are prerequisites to which outcomes?
• Which Combatant Command is headquartered at Kelley Barracks, Stuttgart, Germany?
• What sound cue signals the arrival of a senior officer?
• What are the primary duties of the Officer of the Deck (OOD)?
• TORIS corresponds to which area?
• Which division handles Materials in the ship's supply organization?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four functional commands?
• Which command is associated with Space operations at Peterson Space Force Base?
• Which Combatant Command has an AOR that includes the Middle East, Central Asia, Egypt and Israel?
• How often is Quarters conducted?
• Which term would apply to a situation requiring immediate action to prevent damage?
• Which item is a component of watchstanding requirements, alongside prerequisites, tasks, and examinations?
• Which type of report is used to extend the observation period up to 90 days?
• What is COMSEC?
• Clearance is defined as what?
• In the colors ceremony, what does the term 'At dip' indicate?
• In MOV, the Routine code is represented by which letter and its processing time?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a numbered fleet?
• What does RE stand for?
• What is the external periodicity of a Material Obligation Validation (MOV)?
• Which of the following is a DIVO responsibility?
• What is the purpose of ensuring watch standing qualification and proficiency, per DIVO responsibilities?
• Which of the following is NOT a commissioning program for enlisted personnel?
• What is the purpose of a Material Obligation Validation (MOV)?
• Which term is a component of the P5 cycle but not part of PBED?
• After making risk decisions in ORM, what is the next step?
• Which CASREPS message type is submitted no later than 24 hours after the casualty occurs?
• Which is the highest level in the Navy's use of force continuum?
• Which type of report involves NCIS involvement?
• Why do we use TORIS/TFOM?
• What is Regular liberty?
• The PQS 300 level covers which area?
• Which term represents the cumulative amount of leave used this fiscal year?
• How long must an informal report be documented and resolved?
• What statement best describes the difference between Regular liberty and Weekend liberty?
• A CMEO program objective is to promote what?
• In the ORM five-step sequence, which step follows identifying the hazard?
• Which Combatant Command's AOR includes Europe, Russia, and Greenland?
• Which item is explicitly listed as part of watchstanding requirements?
• Which Core Principle stresses independence in completing tasks?
• Which fund is designated for members who are currently withdrawing from their TSP account?
• CR BAL represents which balance?
• What does the Allowance Equipage List (AEL) describe?
• The Navy's Force Protection program is designed to do what?
• Which Combatant Command is located in Honolulu, Hawaii?
• Which fleet oversees the Eastern half of the Atlantic Ocean and the Adriatic, Baltic, Barents, Black, Caspian, Mediterranean, and North Seas?
• In ORM, what does severity measure?
• AMD stands for which document?
• Under NJP procedures, investigations can be conducted by which of the following?
• CAT II reporting interval is every how many days?
• Concurrent Records are used for members fulfilling which conditions?
• Which item is included in a Statutory Board?
• Which PQS level focuses on Watchstanding?
• What characterizes the Time Critical level of ORM?
• What is the primary purpose of ROC and POE in manpower planning?
• Which fleet covers the Eastern half of the Pacific Ocean?
• How many functional commands are listed?
• ERND is best described as which of the following?
• What is INFOSEC?
• Which description correctly defines Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)?
• Which statement about Weekend liberty is accurate?
• What is the function of the Risk Assessment Code/Matrix in ORM?
• Which statement is true about an informal report?
• What are the origins of the 10th Fleet?
• What does the SOPA flag indicate?
• Which term refers to the current leave balance as of the end of the reporting period?
• Which item is a form of shipboard communication equipment used by the bridge crew for routine voice communication?
• CAPTs Mast is a procedure used for which disciplinary action?
• Which statement correctly describes the General Court-Martial's composition?
• What is the computer program used for maintenance?
• Which item is NOT listed as part of the Division Officer's function aboard ship?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of court-martial?
• Which CASREP type is used to report the repair of previously CASREP'd equipment?
• ETS BAL refers to which of the following?
• Content of Bibs: Which source do candidates for advancement use as a single source for preparation?
• What are the two fund types in TSP?
• Fraternization refers to what?
• Which concept focuses on reducing vulnerability of personnel, facilities, and ships?
• Advanced Exercises are conducted during which phases?
• Which option best describes the overall purpose of TSP fund options?
• Which Combatant Command is headquartered at Peterson AFB, Colorado?
• How many levels are defined in ORM?
• What is Special liberty?
• In ORM, what does probability measure?
• OPREP-5 is a naval message type used to report what kind of events?
• Which is one of the eight Core Principles of Sound Shipboard Operating Procedures?
• What is the purpose of a DIVO Notebook?
• What is played when the senior officer steps on board?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between clearance and access?
• Which term refers to a formal assessment consisting of written or oral demonstration of knowledge?
• Grants in this context refer to:
• Which naval message type is used for general administrative information?
• Who updates the advancement bibliography (Bibs) as specified in the material?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of selection board?
• In Traditional TSP, when are investments taxed?
• In manpower documents, SMD stands for which term?
• DAPA stands for what in the command?
• In a Special Court-Martial, who appoints defense and trial counsel?
• What is the focus of the 300 level PQS?
• OPTAR is defined as what?
• Which option best describes the Top Secret damage level?
• Which statement about Traditional contributions is correct?
• Which term denotes the leave accrual that increases by 2.5 days each month during the fiscal year?
• What is the location of the 10th Fleet (CYBERCOM)?
• Which type of board requires an application package?
• Which term indicates prerequisites must be satisfied before achieving final qualification?
• Which term describes individuals who compromise computer systems for political or ideological goals?